Walk the Talk ?

Mohammed Ghounem

The corruption of the Bible - LDM Show

Dear Christians,

There is something that is very puzzling to me.

In John 8:58, Jesus implies that he is God, he talked the talk, but did he walk the walk?

"I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!" (John 8:58)

"Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by." (John 8:59)

If Jesus, who previously performed many miracles, suggested that he was a god, why not stand and prove it ? Why run and hide ?

For example:

If I go into a town, and tell the people there that I am Superman, then when someone tries to prove me false by throwing uncooked hamburgers at me, I can do one of two things, I can prove I am Superman by cooking the hamburgers in mid-air with my heat vision, or run and hide for fear of getting clunked in the head with a frozen hamburger patties.

Now if I run and hide, then surely this proves I am not Superman.

So that is my confusion, why would Jesus make such a claim and then run and hide?

Jesus nor superman had to hurt the attackers, only shield themselves with their Powers, as superman shields himself from citizens who "know not what they do", why didn't Jesus?

If Jesus wanted them to know he was a god, why completely discrediting himself by running away from the rocks instead of making the rocks into butterflies?

For more on [John 8:58], please read the following article.

From The Webmaster of

1. This story and statement of John 8:58 is not mentioned in the first three synoptic Gospels: Gospel According to Matthew, Mark, and luke.

2. Please read the Gospel According to John , page 117, which states:

The Gospel according to John is another story. The author explains his reason of writing this Gospel, 20:30-31: he states many miracles of Jesus for the reader to believe that Jesus is the Christ and the Son of God. John did not introduce the trinity, but confirms the “duality of God.” Both father and son are gods. This Gospel was not included in the acceptable documents of the Fathers of the Church in the second and third century.

Because Jesus said "I am" ?

Dear Christians,

Some Christians claim Jesus is God and use (John 8:58) to support their views;

"I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

These Christians then link the Verse (Exodus 3:14) to try to justify that Jesus is God;

" God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM. [1] This is what you are to say to the

Israelites: `I AM has sent me to you.'"

Now by Jesus Saying "I_am" is Not saying "I AM GOD"

Before and after (Exodus 3:14) , God clarifies that "I-AM-THE-GOD-OF-ABRAHAM"

God says the phrase "I-AM-GOD-" about 200 times in the Bible while Jesus in his over 30 years on earth never said that .

The High Priest Melchizedek in the Bible is Also Before Abraham and According to the Bible {Hebrews 7:1-4};

"..Had not Beginning and no End, had no parents.."

Furthermore, if we look at a Bible Hebrew Dictionary , we can look up the Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} in Hebrew and see that it Means;

"was, come to pass, came, has been, were happened, become, pertained, better for thee

1) to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen, fall out

1a) to happen, fall out, occur, take place, come about, come to pass

1b) to come about, come to pass

2) to come into being, become

2a) to arise, appear, come

2b) to become

2b1) to become

2b3) to be instituted, be established

3) to be

3a) to exist, be in existence

3b) to abide, remain, continue (with word of place or time)

3c) to stand, lie, be in, be at, be situated (with word of locality)

3d) to accompany, be with "

The Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} is Used 72 times in the Hebrew Bible by a

number of Prophets including (David, Moses, etc...)

The Phrase " I-AM-GOD "'Elohiym {el-o-heem'} is Used 200 times in the Bible , Never by Any Prophets .

Furthermore , in the Gospel of John , Jesus is recorded to have said "ego eimi" _Not_ "Hayah" Two completely different words in completely different languages , but both translated in to English as "I_am"

Why then did't Jesus also say "Hayah" (I_am) the same way God said "Hayah" ??

There is no exception that Jesus would say "ego eimi" _instead_ of "Hayah" becuase the Gospel does also use some Hebrew words , for example ;

(a) "Hossana" - Matthew 21:9 (b) "Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani" - Matthew 27:46

(c) "Rabbi" - John 3:2 (d) "Talitha cumi" - Mark 5:41

Therefore with a *Statement* as grand as "I_am" , Jesus (if he said it) would have said "Hayah" like God said "Hayah"

Instead , Jesus says "ego eimi" which is not what God said .

This proves that Jesus did Not say "I_am" like God said "I AM"

Also , this phrase appears in Jhn, but Not in Luke , Mark , or Matthew .

On the Otherhand , God says "I-AM-GOD" in almost Every Book and Chapter in the Torah , why does Only Jhn record Jesus saying "I_am" and this incredible

revealing quote is Not Documented by Mark , Matthew , or Luke ?

Wouldn't such a important saying be recorded by the *Three* others and why is it only recorded by _1_ .

Why haven't the Three ~Earlier~ Gospels record this verse and Only the _Later_ 'Jhn' write this ? I would say that Majority Rules , Right ?

If Three Accepted and Accredited Gospels Do Not have the verse , and Only 1 does , then we have to question if Jesus really said such a thing (esspecially something as Grand as this which the Other Three would Surely Not have missed if it was Truely Said) , Right ?

The phrase that _some_ Christians highlight to suggest that Jesus is God , doesn't even appear in 2 out of the 4 Gospels , Only in the (later writen) Jhn .

God said the Phrase "I-AM-GOD" just to about everyone , Jesus appears to have said "I_am" ("ego eimi" *Not* "Hayah") to only Jhn , why weren't the Other Three told or even atleast Record that John was told ?